Interesting discussion in class - Does TV push us to believe that we are part of a larger audience, and in turn, does radio communicate exclusively with 'an' individual even from among a group of listeners?
This is an Englishman's question. My instructor from London. He believes radio communicates to an individual, while TV, by construction, plays to an audience of more than one. He uses the example of singing to oneself while driving. He says we find ourselves singing along to a song in the radio, but not to the TV (mostly). This, he justifies, is because we are conscious of our co-viewers while watching TV. This comes from the movie-watching experience, he says, during which the whole family sits together. TV viewing is an extension of movie-watching, which is why we share the viewing-experience with the others in the room, he says.
Is this also because the radio necessitates the use of only one sense, making it that much more closer to the contemplating mind and the individual; whereas, one uses both sight and hearing in TV-viewing therefore pushing thinking (and the individual) to the background?
Or, does he feel this way because in his country, people listen to the radio in their cars, in their personal spaces? Is listening to radio an essentially cultural experience? In India, radio-listening (the pre-FM period) has always been a collective activity, with a crowd gathered around an old Murphy Valve Set in rapt attention. In this context, what happens to the argument that radio is a personal experience?
Ergo, communication can never have one definition, nor should one attempt to generalise it to include it in a 'global' basket.